If the missile was launched against an adversary but intercepted by the same entity that launched it, does that count. If such a thing is possible.

@Eliza I think yes, I'll count that, provided we have evidence that it was in fact launched against a target, whether by accident or hacking or a simple case of changed minds.

Basically my presumption is that if the same country launches the missile and the interceptor, that sounds like a test, and I'd want to see some evidence that it wasn't. Whereas my presumption is that if (for example) the US shoots down a North Korean missile, that's not a test.